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Sample Paper For SSUHS Bsc Nursing, Paramedical Entrance Exam 2025 –

Published On: June 16, 2025

Disclaimer: This test paper is not an official sample paper released by SSUHS. It has been prepared by Axom Future (a YouTube channel) as a practice resource for SSUHS BSc Nursing and degree/diploma in Paramedical entrance exam. The paper includes 100 MCQs divided into Physics, Chemistry, Biology, and English Grammar (25 questions each), covering theory, numericals, and application-based questions. Please note that the actual exam pattern and difficulty level may vary. Use this as a supplementary study material alongside official resources.

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SSUHS Entrance Exam 2025 Exam Pattern

The Assam BSc Nursing degree/diploma in Paramedical Entrance Exam 2025 will consist of the following pattern:

Subject	Number of Questions	Marks
Physics	25	25
Chemistry	25	25
Biology (Botany & Zoology)	25	25
English	25	25
Total	100	100

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About This Mock Test

This comprehensive test paper is designed for Class 11 & 12 students (AHSEC syllabus 2024-25) preparing for SSUHS BSc Nursing and Paramedical entrance exams. It includes 100 MCQs divided into four sections (25 MCQs each), covering Physics, Chemistry, Biology, and English Grammar with a balanced mix of theory, numericals, and application-based questions.

Time: 2 hours | Total Questions: 100 (25 per subject)

How to Use This Mock Test

Answer the Questions: Each question is enclosed in a blue-bordered box for easy navigation. Select one option per question.
Submit Your Answers: Click the “Submit” button to instantly view your score and the correct answers.
Review & Learn: Green highlights indicate correct answers, while red highlights show incorrect ones, helping you understand your mistakes.
Retake as Needed: Practice multiple times to improve your accuracy and speed.

Physics & Chemistry MCQ Test

Physics MCQ for Class 11 & 12 (AHSEC)

Physics

1. The unit of electrical resistance is:

a) Ohm b) Volt c) Ampere d) Coulomb

2. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?

a) Velocity b) Force c) Acceleration d) Speed

3. The dimensional formula of work is:

a) [M L² T^-2] b) [M L T^-2] c) [M L² T^-1] d) [M L T^-1]

4. The speed of light in vacuum is approximately:

a) 3 × 10⁸ m/s b) 3 × 10⁶ m/s c) 3 × 10¹⁰ m/s d) 3 × 10⁵ m/s

5. In a series LCR circuit, the resonance condition occurs when:

a) XL = XC b) XL > XC c) XL < XC d) R = 0

6. The phenomenon of splitting of a spectral line into closely spaced lines in the presence of a magnetic field is called:

a) Zeeman effect b) Stark effect c) Photoelectric effect d) Compton effect

7. The SI unit of power is:

a) Joule b) Watt c) Newton d) Pascal

8. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the Earth is approximately:

a) 7.8 m/s² b) 9.8 m/s² c) 10 m/s² d) 8.9 m/s²

9. The energy stored in a capacitor is given by:

a) ½ CV b) ½ CV² c) CV² d) CV

10. The refractive index of a medium is defined as:

a) The ratio of the speed of light in vacuum to the speed of light in the medium b) The ratio of the speed of light in the medium to the speed of light in vacuum c) The ratio of the wavelength in vacuum to the wavelength in the medium d) The ratio of the frequency in the medium to the frequency in vacuum

11. The escape velocity from the surface of the Earth is approximately:

a) 11.2 km/s b) 9.8 km/s c) 7.9 km/s d) 5.6 km/s

12. The first law of thermodynamics is a statement of the conservation of:

a) Mass b) Energy c) Momentum d) Charge

13. The time period of a simple pendulum depends on:

a) Mass of the bob b) Length of the string c) Amplitude of oscillation d) Acceleration due to gravity

14. The unit of magnetic flux is:

a) Tesla b) Weber c) Henry d) Gauss

15. The critical angle for total internal reflection occurs when light travels from:

a) Denser to rarer medium b) Rarer to denser medium c) Vacuum to medium d) Medium to vacuum

16. The photoelectric effect demonstrates that:

a) Light has wave properties b) Light has particle properties c) Light has both wave and particle properties d) Light has neither wave nor particle properties

17. The unit of pressure is:

a) Pascal b) Joule c) Newton d) Watt

18. Which of the following is not a unit of energy?

a) Joule b) Calorie c) Electronvolt d) Newton

19. The law of conservation of momentum states that:

a) Momentum is always conserved b) Momentum is conserved only in elastic collisions c) Momentum is conserved only in inelastic collisions d) Momentum is conserved in both elastic and inelastic collisions

20. The potential energy of a body at a height h is given by:

a) mgh b) ½ mgh c) 2mgh d) mgh²

21. The kinetic energy of an object is given by:

a) ½ mv b) mv² c) ½ mv² d) 2mv

22. The focal length of a convex lens is:

a) Always positive b) Always negative c) Zero d) Sometimes positive, sometimes negative

23. The SI unit of frequency is:

a) Hertz b) Meter c) Second d) Newton

24. The process of emission of electrons from a metal surface when light falls on it is called:

a) Thermionic emission b) Photoelectric emission c) Field emission d) Secondary emission

25. The force of attraction between two point masses is directly proportional to:

a) The product of their masses b) The square of the distance between them c) The distance between them d) The sum of their masses

Chemistry

26. What is the chemical symbol for gold?

a) Au b) Ag c) Pb d) Fe

27. What is the atomic number of carbon?

a) 6 b) 12 c) 14 d) 16

28. Which gas is most abundant in the Earth’s atmosphere?

a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen c) Carbon Dioxide d) Hydrogen

29. What is the pH of pure water?

a) 7 b) 5 c) 9 d) 11

30. What is the formula for calculating molarity?

a) moles of solute / volume of solution b) mass of solute / volume of solution c) mass of solute / mass of solution d) volume of solute / volume of solution

31. Which element has the highest electronegativity?

a) Oxygen b) Fluorine c) Chlorine d) Nitrogen

32. What is the main component of natural gas?

a) Methane b) Ethane c) Propane d) Butane

33. What is the chemical name for table salt?

a) Sodium Chloride b) Sodium Carbonate c) Potassium Chloride d) Potassium Iodide

34. Which element is a liquid at room temperature?

a) Mercury b) Bromine c) Both A and B d) Neither A nor B

35. What is the molar mass of water (H₂O)?

a) 18 g/mol b) 16 g/mol c) 20 g/mol d) 22 g/mol

36. Which type of bond involves the sharing of electron pairs between atoms?

a) Ionic bond b) Covalent bond c) Metallic bond d) Hydrogen bond

37. What is the common name for the compound H₂SO₄?

a) Sulfuric acid b) Hydrochloric acid c) Nitric acid d) Acetic acid

38. Which element is known as the “king of chemicals”?

a) Hydrogen b) Oxygen c) Sulfur d) Nitrogen

39. What is the chemical formula for glucose?

a) C₆H₁₂O₆ b) C₆H₆O₆ c) C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁ d) C₆H₁₂O₇

40. Which of the following is an alkali metal?

a) Sodium b) Calcium c) Aluminum d) Iron

41. What is the process of converting a solid directly into a gas called?

a) Condensation b) Sublimation c) Evaporation d) Melting

42. Which element has the highest melting point?

a) Iron b) Tungsten c) Carbon d) Platinum

43. What is the chemical formula for ammonia?

a) NH₃ b) NH₄ c) NO₃ d) NO₄

44. What is the main constituent of air?

a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen c) Carbon Dioxide d) Argon

45. Which of the following is a noble gas?

a) Helium b) Hydrogen c) Oxygen d) Nitrogen

46. What is the chemical symbol for lead?

a) Pb b) Ld c) Le d) Pd

47. What is the charge of an electron?

a) Positive b) Negative c) Neutral d) Variable

48. What is the main use of helium gas?

a) Balloons b) Welding c) Breathing mixtures d) Refrigeration

49. Which of the following is a non-metal?

a) Copper b) Iron c) Sulfur d) Zinc

50. What is the chemical formula for sodium hydroxide?

a) NaOH b) NaHCO₃ c) Na₂CO₃ d) NaCl

Biology Quiz (Questions 51 to 75)

51. Which of the following is the basic unit of life?

a) Atom b) Molecule c) Cell d) Tissue

52. Which organelle is responsible for protein synthesis?

a) Mitochondria b) Ribosome c) Golgi apparatus d) Lysosome

53. Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?

a) Detoxification b) Protein synthesis c) Photosynthesis d) Bile production

54. Which part of the brain is responsible for balance and coordination?

a) Cerebrum b) Cerebellum c) Medulla oblongata d) Thalamus

55. What is the main function of red blood cells?

a) Fight infection b) Transport oxygen c) Clot blood d) Produce antibodies

56. Which of the following is a greenhouse gas?

a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen c) Carbon dioxide d) Hydrogen

57. Which of the following is a function of the skeletal system?

a) Protection of internal organs b) Production of blood cells c) Support and movement d) All of the above

58. What is the role of chlorophyll in photosynthesis?

a) Absorb sunlight b) Convert light energy to chemical energy c) Split water molecules d) All of the above

59. Which of the following is a micronutrient required by plants?

a) Nitrogen b) Phosphorus c) Iron d) Potassium

60. Which of the following is a function of the endocrine system?

a) Regulation of metabolism b) Control of growth and development c) Maintenance of homeostasis d) All of the above

61. Which of the following is a characteristic of prokaryotic cells?

a) Presence of a nucleus b) Absence of membrane-bound organelles c) Presence of mitochondria d) Presence of chloroplasts

62. Which of the following is a function of the lymphatic system?

a) Transport of oxygen b) Immune response c) Digestion of food d) Production of hormones

63. Which of the following is a type of asexual reproduction?

a) Binary fission b) Fertilization c) Meiosis d) Pollination

64. Which of the following is a function of the placenta in mammals?

a) Exchange of nutrients and waste b) Production of hormones c) Protection of the fetus d) All of the above

65. Which of the following is a function of the stomata in plants?

a) Photosynthesis b) Transpiration c) Gas exchange d) All of the above

66. Which of the following is a function of the large intestine?

a) Absorption of water b) Digestion of proteins c) Production of bile d) Absorption of glucose

67. Which of the following is a function of the pancreas?

a) Production of insulin b) Production of digestive enzymes c) Regulation of blood sugar d) All of the above

68. Which of the following is a function of the skin?

a) Protection b) Temperature regulation c) Sensation d) All of the above

69. Which of the following is a function of the nervous system?

a) Transmission of signals b) Coordination of body activities c) Response to stimuli d) All of the above

70. Which of the following is a function of the circulatory system?

a) Transport of oxygen b) Transport of nutrients c) Removal of waste d) All of the above

71. Which of the following is a function of the immune system?

a) Defense against pathogens b) Production of antibodies c) Recognition of foreign substances d) All of the above

72. Which of the following is a function of the reproductive system?

a) Production of gametes b) Fertilization c) Development of offspring d) All of the above

73. Which of the following is a function of the excretory system?

a) Removal of waste b) Regulation of water balance c) Maintenance of pH balance d) All of the above

74. Which of the following is a function of the muscular system?

a) Movement b) Support c) Heat production d) All of the above

75. Which of the following is a function of the skeletal system?

a) Protection of organs b) Support c) Production of blood cells d) All of the above

English Grammar MCQ Quiz (Questions 76 to 100)

76. Which of the following is a correct sentence?

a) She don’t like apples. b) She doesn’t likes apples. c) She doesn’t like apples. d) She didn’t likes apples.

77. Choose the correct form of the verb: “He ___ to the gym every day.”

a) go b) goes c) going d) gone

78. Identify the correct plural form of “child”:

a) childs b) children c) childes d) childen

79. Which sentence is in the present continuous tense?

a) She reads a book. b) She is reading a book. c) She has read a book. d) She read a book.

80. Choose the correct preposition: “She is good ___ math.”

a) at b) in c) on d) for

81. Which word is a synonym for “happy”?

a) Sad b) Joyful c) Angry d) Tired

82. Identify the adverb in the sentence: “She quickly ran to the store.”

a) She b) Ran c) Quickly d) Store

83. Which sentence is in the passive voice?

a) The cat chased the mouse. b) The mouse was chased by the cat. c) The cat is chasing the mouse. d) The mouse chased the cat.

84. Choose the correct conjunction: “I wanted to go for a walk, ___ it started raining.”

a) and b) but c) or d) so

85. Which sentence is grammatically correct?

a) They is going to the park. b) They are going to the park. c) They am going to the park. d) They be going to the park.

86. Which word is an antonym for “brave”?

a) Courageous b) Fearless c) Cowardly d) Bold

87. Identify the correct sentence:

a) The dog bark loud. b) The dog barks loudly. c) The dog barked loud. d) The dog barks loud.

88. Choose the correct article: “She is ___ honest person.”

a) a b) an c) the d) no article

89. Which sentence is in the future tense?

a) She is going to the market. b) She will go to the market. c) She went to the market. d) She goes to the market.

90. Identify the correct possessive form: “This is ___ book.”

a) Johns b) John’s c) Johns’ d) John

91. Which word is a noun?

a) Quickly b) Happiness c) Run d) Beautiful

92. Choose the correct form of the verb: “They ___ to the party last night.”

a) go b) goes c) went d) gone

93. Which sentence is grammatically correct?

a) She don’t have any money. b) She doesn’t has any money. c) She doesn’t have any money. d) She didn’t has any money.

94. Identify the correct comparative form of “good”:

a) gooder b) better c) best d) more good

95. Which sentence is in the present perfect tense?

a) She is eating dinner. b) She has eaten dinner. c) She ate dinner. d) She will eat dinner.

96. Choose the correct preposition: “The book is ___ the table.”

a) in b) on c) at d) under

97. Which word is a verb?

a) Happiness b) Quickly c) Run d) Beautiful

98. Identify the correct sentence:

a) He don’t like coffee. b) He doesn’t likes coffee. c) He doesn’t like coffee. d) He didn’t likes coffee.

99. Which sentence is in the past continuous tense?

a) She is reading a book. b) She was reading a book. c) She reads a book. d) She has read a book.

100. Which sentence is in the past perfect tense?

a) She has finished her homework. b) She had finished her homework before dinner. c) She finishes her homework. d) She will finish her homework.

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2 thoughts on “Sample Paper For SSUHS Bsc Nursing, Paramedical Entrance Exam 2025 –”

Nirmali Borah

June 17, 2025 at 10:52 am

Thank you for the amazing test paper. I really appreciate your hardwork. Please provide us some more sample papers like this before 22th june. And again a huge Thanks to you for providing such a amazing free content ❤️.
- Axom Future
  
  June 17, 2025 at 6:16 pm
  
  Thank You